DID JESUS DIE SPIRITUALLY?

 

I wrote this essay while at Central Bible College for my Hebrews class in December of 1982. Recently I have heard 2 different  Preachers say something that I have addressed in this paper. That prompted me to dig it out to place on this website. I have made minor corrections to it as was needed for clarity, other wise it is as I wrote it in 1982. I pray it will help some see Gods truth on the sacrifice of Jesus, that God planed from before the foundation of the world. It is a long essay but please read it all, as many times as you need to and tell others about it. I truly believe it to be Biblically sound. May God bless you as you seek Him!!!       MARANATHA

DID JESUS DIE SPIRITUALLY?

By

Chuck Heidle

Class: Hebrews

December 6, 1982

OUTLINE

DID JESUS DIE SPIRITUALLY?

I . The doctrine: Ransom to Satan Theory of the Atonement , alias

“Jesus Died Spiritually.”

II. The domain of the wicked spirits.

III. What is hell for?

IV. The law holds man bondage not the devil.

V.  Did God, the Father, really hide His face from Jesus?

VI. The body of Jesus was the Sacrifice.

VII. What really happened when Jesus went to Hades?

 

 

I . The doctrine: Ransom to Satan Theory of the Atonement , alias

“Jesus Died Spiritually.”

For the last few years the church has been propagating a “new” illumination of the atonement which in reality is a heresy that goes back very close to the beginning of the church age. It is called the “Ransom to Satan Theory” of the atonement. Origen (A.D. 230) was the first to fully develop this unorthodox atonement theory. [1]

“Adam, in his fall, committed high treason and sold the human race into the hands of God’s archenemy, Satan. God then had to find a way to get mankind back; and He found a way by the incarnation, bringing Jesus, the Son of God, into the world. He, through His life, death, and descent into hell would redeem man from Satan.”

Those that propagate this theory say that the cross was only the beginning of our redemption, that when Jesus cried, “It is finished” that He was talking about the Abrahamic covenant [2] or the Mosaic covenant [3] (depending on who you read) and not the atonement being completed. They will also say that when Jesus said to the thief on the cross, “Verily, I say unto thee today, (note comma) shalt thou be with me in paradise,” He didn’t mean that specific day. [4] They say that when Jesus died He went into hell to be ” turned over to Satan” for “Satanic torture of His pure Spirit as part of the just desert of the sin of all the race”. [5] (He goes on and says hell seems to be Satan’s headquarters.) they say that when Jesus was made to be sin for us (II Corinthians 5:21), He became a “sinner” and that He had to be “born again” while in hell. They also say it wasn’t enough that He died a physical death but He must also die spiritually. They say Satan didn’t know what he was doing when he killed Jesus because this only sealed his doom. 

The writer fully realizes that this is not all that those who

propagate this say about the subject, but enough has been said to

show it is still an erroneous doctrine. Even in their own writings

they have a problem with the actual time the atonement was completed by Jesus. They seem to say or think that the cross experience is the same as Jesus descending into hell to be tormented.The writer would like it to be understood that he is not calling in to question the character of the persons which believe this doctrine or preach it. What he will attempt to do is to show from scripture that this doctrine is indeed erroneous; and the danger that it ultimately comes to, is adding to the atonement, which is to say it takes the “blood of Jesus” plus something to redeem man. As we know, this is not the case.

 

II. The domain of the wicked spirits.

The first place the writer would like to look is where is the

domain of the wicked spirits or where do they live? To start with

let’s look at where it started with man. In the garden of Eden, Satan used a serpent to deceive Eve (Genesis 3:1-5). That means he is on earth, not in hell. When Job comes along, the devil is seen in heaven before God (Job 1:6-12; 2:1-6) and on earth again (2:7) and again Satan is not in hell. Daniel gives us the first real look at Satan’s domain. In Daniel chapter 10, verse 13, a prince over a kingdom hindered Daniel’s answer to his prayer. This prince is a demon or one of the devil’s angels, and it appears as though there is a hierarchy of demonic spirits over nations (not hell) which most conservative Christian believe.

This same chapter, verse 20, makes another statement which lends credit to this theory. The Prince of Grecia is going to join the Prince of Persia to fight against this angel and Michael of verse 31.

Even before we get in to the New Testament it appears as though the Bible is setting forth the idea or doctrine that the devil is in control of this world (not hell). He has setup his headquarters in this world (Revelation 2:13) (not hell). As we approach the New Testament and its further revelation about Satan’s domain, the doctrine of Satan’s existence on the earth is made quite clear. Jesus cast demons out of people all the time in His ministry. Soltau, in his book, The Tabernacle, says of Satan, “He is still the god of this world,”[7] and then gives the scriptures to show this. Luke 10:18 and Revelation 12:7-9 say Satan has been thrown out of heaven so he can’t appear any more as the “accuser of the brethren” like he did to Job. John has a number of references to the devil as the prince of this world.

(John 12:31 “… now shall the prince of this world be cast

out.” 14:30 “…for the prince of this world cometh,

and hath nothing in me.” 16:11 “… the prince of this

world is judged.”). In II Corinthians 4:4 the devil is called the “god of this world.” In Ephesians 2:2 he is called “the prince of the power of the air.” In 6:12 Paul says “…but against principalities,

against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world , against spiritual wickedness (or wicked spirits) in high places (or heavenly places).” [8]

None of these scriptures make any reference to the devil being the god or prince over hell or even imply that Satan is in hell or has ever been in hell. There are a few scriptures some have taken to mean that the devil is in hell or has his headquarters there. [9]

Some have even adopted the little cliché, which is almost universally used in the church and even the writer has at times said it – – “Satan and all the hosts of hell.” (The writer doesn’t say this any more) But is this a Biblical statement? Yes, we all know what we mean when we say it. We mean he is evil, and we associate hell with evil. Melton, in his work, Paradise Lost, goes into great detail of Satan in hell [10] and how he comes out to tempt the first man; but this is just a big fantasy. There are no scriptural grounds for this literary work to stand on for the Christian. One scripture some think applies to Satan in hell is Matthew 16;17-19 where Jesus says , “the gates of hell shall not prevail against the church.” Is Jesus talking about the devil? I think not, because he isn’t even mentioned. What I think He is saying is that none of His people will ever go to the place of torments because their redemption is secure in Him. [11] So Hades has no hold on a believer. We don’t have to fear the next world so the gates of hell will not prevail against the church; we are not destined for torments.[11] Another scripture is in Revelation 9:11, the locusts have a king over them whose name in Hebrew or Greek is not Satan, [12] and besides, the reason for the angel of verse 1 to come, was to open it up to let

them out. So even their king is incarcerated with them, unable to

get out until he is loosed by the angel of verse 1. If he is Satan,

he is locked up and unable to hinder us at this time; and besides

all that, who says this pit is hell? The Greek words say it is not. So on these grounds I submit, that the devil is the god of this world.

He has had access to God in the past (Luke 10:18) or still does (Revelation 12:7-9), and he is not in hell and has never been there. Then what is the tormentor of hell and what is hell for, if

it isn’t the headquarters of Satan?

The word hell goes back a long way in history. In classical Greek literature the word can be found in Homer and is used as a

name for the god of the underworld. [13] Later on, in other Greek

literature, the idea of hell took on a meaning of reward or punishment after death.

In the Old Testament the word, Sheol, is most of the time translated to the Greek LXX by, “Hades”; and according to Strong’s Concordance, Sheol means, “Hades or the world of the dead (as if a subterranean retreat) including its accessories and inmates—grave, hell, pit.” [14] Colin Brown says, “sheol, the underworld which receives all the dead.” [15] This section of Colin Brown goes on to show how their understanding of the Old Testament didn’t give them a full picture of hell as the New Testament does but that there is a hint of reward and punishment there and also that it isn’t a permanent place, but those there will come forth to resurrection. [16] This change from a belief of hell being the “eternal shadowy existence” of man to the temporary place for all the dead to await the resurrection took place after the exile to Babylon. [17] At the time of Jesus another idea was developing which says that only the wicked dead were kept in hell and the righteous live in a heavenly world. (One must understand this refers to the development of man’s theology, not that the Bible contradicts it self or is wrong in anyway). I can see both ideas in scripture, that is all dead are in hell (Luke 16:23, 26) [18] and the idea that only the wicked are there. (This will be seen in the last chapter more clearly.) Luke 16 is before the cross, and the

righteous were held there in Abraham’s bosom (Luke 16:22) or paradise (Luke 23:43). This is where Jesus went when He went to Hades (and the thief that was crucified with Him) (Acts 2:27,31). Paradise was in Hades. He took these people back to heaven with Him (Ephesians 4:8).

 

III. What is hell for?

The early Christian also had another comfort, and that is that they would never see this place at death (Matthew 16:18f; I Peter

3:19ff; 4:6; Revelation 1:18). Matthew 16:18, as has been written

of earlier, is not talking about the devil and his cohorts; but it is speaking of the fact that Jesus, as the “Christ” (verse 16), the

Anointed One, the Messiah, the Savior, keeps His people from ever allowing the “gates of hell” to close on one of His people. [19] As Savior, He can do this because we have passed “from death to life” and the “sting of death” is gone. All are in agreement that this is a temporary place for the dead until the resurrection, and then they are placed in the “lake of fire” (Revelation 20:14) or the “everlasting fire” (Matthew 25:41). This is the eternal place of

torment (Revelation 20:10) which the New Testament calls gehenna. 

This place was prepared for the eternal incarceration of

the devil and his angels (Matthew 25:41) to be tormented forever.

The New Testament doesn’t even come close to saying that Satan is the prince over this place either.[20]

It seems as though the writer has drawn out this look at

the doctrine of hell, but it is necessary to show that Satan is not

in hell (Hades ) nor has he ever been there. According to Luke 16:23-24, the tormentor of Hades is fire and not the devil. So, if he were there, he would be the one being tormented not tormenting anyone else. 

There is one scripture in the Old Testament that says that

Lucifer “shall be brought to hell” (Isaiah 14:9,15). This could be the eternal gehenna or the temporary Hades. The Hebrew word is

Sheol which doesn’t show us which it means. I prefer to see it as

the eternal gehenna because there are people already in it (verse

19). If the devil were put in hell before Revelation 20:10, there

wouldn’t be any people there because he would have made his

headquarters there before the first man was formed.This, I believe, is a proper look at what the Bible says about hell. I do not

believe Satan tormented Jesus in hell as His master, [21] between

His death and resurrection.

 

IV. The law holds man bondage not the devil.

Further, the writer does not believe that it is the devil who was holding man in bondage; or to say it in another way, he does not  believe that God paid a “ransom” to the devil to buy mankind back. He believes that man was redeemed (or ransomed) from the law (Galatians 3:13).[22] This word “redeemed” literally

means to “buy back.”[23] Then we ask bought back from what, if not the devil? This verse gives us the answer–bought back from the curse of the law. The curse first came because of the very first law being broken–“but of the tree of the knowledge of good and

evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall die” (Genesis 2:17, RSV). When the devil tempted men on that fatal

day, he had no claim on man whatsoever. But as man yielded and

became a transgressor of that law, the penalty of that law had to

be put in force (which was the curse); and that was “ye shall

surely die.” The law now holds man bondage until it is satisfied.

Until the penalty (curse) is paid, man is held under its power.

The devil is the one who carries out or executes the pronounced

sentence, or curse, which is death (John 10:10); but it is the

law that actually holds man in its grip.

Jesus was made a curse in our place (Galatians 3:13) which means the demand of the law was satisfied. To say it another way, Jesus was a ransom to the law or to the demands of the law which God’s justice required. The writer realizes that Galatians chapter 3 is speaking of the Mosaic Law which does not negate the foregoing. The Mosaic law was given to show all mankind how sinful sin truly is (Romans 7:13) and that all man is under its roof (bondage) (Romans 3:19). To the Gentile, it was a law in their conscience. To the Jew, it was the Mosaic law; but all knew and know Gods standard of righteousness because it has been revealed to them (Romans 1:18-21). The Mosaic law showed just how wicked man had become. In Romans 7:7 Paul says that he wouldn’t have known sin if the law had not been so specific. (This is not to ignore the untrained conscience revealing sin.) All law is given with a penalty for breaking it, and the Mosaic law was no exception, it had its curses. These were taken by Jesus, in Galatians 3:13, but 4:5 says, “we have been redeemed or ransomed from the law” or the penalty of it . The law has been broken by every man, ” for all have sinned” (Romans 3:23); so no man can point a finger at the first Adam and blame him for death. Since we are helpless in this state to do anything about it, Jesus paid the price (to the law) to set us free.

Part of that curse that Jesus took was II Corinthians 5:21- 

“He has made Him to be sin for us, who knew no sin.” Now, this

does not mean that Jesus became a sinner and needed to be born again like some have said.[24] Hodge in his book has this to say.

“Imputation conveys neither pollution nor holiness.

  Christ’s bearing our sins did not make Him morally

a sinner, any more than the victim was morally defiled       which bore the sins of the people; nor does Christ’s 

  righteousness becomes subjectively yours, it is not 

the moral quality of our souls.[25]”

God did not make Jesus a sinner because only a personal act of disobedience to God’s laws can make someone a sinner, and Jesus was at all times in the perfect will of God. What did happen was imputation. Sin was imputed to Him to “bear it away,” just as His righteousness is now imputed to us to make us “the righteousness of God.” Paul, in I Corinthians 15 when speaking of the resurrection in verses 55-56, says “O death where is thy sting? O grave where is thy victory? The sting of death is sin and the strength of sin is the law.” So I submit once again that it is not the devil that holds man captive, but the law as man breaks it. Paul, in chapters 3-8 of Romans, really gives a thorough understanding concerning this issue. The devil has only gotten hold of man through the law as the executioner of the pronounced sentence or curse, and that is why we see such verses as Hebrews 2:14 which seem to leave the impression that the devil must be satisfied or that man had to be redeemed from him.

One last scripture to further prove the is point is Colossians 2:13-15: 

Yes although you were dead through your shortcomings and were physically uncircumcised, God made you live again through fellowship with Christ. He graciously forgave us all our shortcomings, canceled the note (handwriting) that stood against us, with its requirements, and has put it out of our way by nailing it

to the cross. He thus striped the principalities and dominions of power and made a public display of them, triumphing over them in the cross . (Williams)

Jesus nailed the law, that the devil used to get at men, to His cross. (verse 15) It was the law that stood against us, and as it was nailed to the tree Jesus took man totally out of the devil’s reach because he has to have that law to get to man.

 

V.  Did God, the Father, really hide His face from Jesus?

The writer would now like to turn his attention to the sacrifice of Jesus on the cross. It has been said by some that He had to

die spiritually to fulfill all that was required to redeem man. The

writer submits that this is false. While Jesus hung on the cross He uttered several phrases. One of those was to the thief on one of the other crosses. “Verily I say unto thee, today shalt thou be with me in paradise.” (Note the comma) (Luke 23:43) The Greek New Testament has no commas so we are free to put them where we feel they are needed; but some have tried to make this verse read, ” Verily I say unto thee today, shalt thou be with me in paradise,”[26] which means it is a way of getting around saying that Jesus, when He died, went straight to paradise.

The Greek language is very picturesque. It is alive with being able through its tenses to describe what it really means, and

this verse can be looked at in the Greek language to show that the word “today” should go with paradise. Dana and Manty have this to say in their book, “Greeks themselves always observed with conscious accuracy their tense distinctions.”[27] The Greek words “I say unto thee” (soi lego) are in the present tense. The present tense means “the subject is directly performing the act affirmed.”[28] This is referring to the simple active, and that is what we are considering here. In light of this, it would be redundant to try to press Kenyon’s translation because the   present tense means Jesus is talking right now. So to say “I say unto you today, thou…” is doing violence to the Greek tenses which are represented in this verse.The word “today” goes with the word “paradise”. Almost all scholars agree that it refers to being in paradise.”[29] This means as Jesus died He went to paradise not torments. (Luke 23:43; Acts 2:27).

Other verses to consider are Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34,

“My God, my God why hast thou forsaken me.” It is a popular interpretation of this verse to say that at this point God, the Father, turned or hid His face from Jesus,[30] banished Him from His presence or forsook Him in some way. The writer seems to believe that there is enough scriptural evidence to say this is not the case. The verse Jesus quotes here in Matthew 27:46 is from Psalms 1:2 and Kenneth Copeland rightly says he believes Jesus is quoting this Psalm and so does the writer; and Brother Copeland goes on and says “If you follow through, the entire 22nd Psalm, you will see that it clearly sets out a picture of Jesus on the cross.”[31] It says in verse 24 that “…NEITHER HATH HE HID HIS FA C E FROM HIM…” now, is this a contradiction of verse 1? I think not! Jesus, in His human nature, bore our sin, and in His human nature He cried out “My God, my God why have you forsaken me.” It was a legal separation only. It cannot be anymore than that because how can you divide the unity of the God-head or separate God from God? You would have two separate Gods. Pray tell, where in God’s creation could God banish Jesus to where God is not? God is omnipresent, isn’t He? (Psalm 139:7-8), God, the Father never hid His face from Jesus! “When Thou shalt make His soul an offering for sin, HE SHALL SEE His seed” (Isaiah 53:10 KJV). God shall see what ? When His soul is made an offering, He shall see it! “As a result of the anguish of His soul, HE WILL SEE IT and be satisfied” (Isaiah 53:11, NASB). God will see what? The anguish of His soul, His sacrifice on Calvary! God, the Father, was watching the whole time Jesus hung on the cross, but even more than that: “To wit, that GOD WAS IN CHRIST, RECONCILING the world to Himself…” (II Corinthians 5:19 KJV). If God was in Him, how could He turn His face from Him? In the Gospel of John we have many statements such as: all will leave Jesus but the Father (16:32; 8:28,29), “I and the Father are one” (10:30), and “…The Father is in Me and I in Him” (10:38), (13:3).

 

VI. The body of Jesus was the Sacrifice.

The sacrifice of Jesus was “Most Holy”, not just holy, but Most Holy, even more Holy than all the Old Testament sacrifices, because they were just types of Him. So how much more Holy is His sacrifice. It is blasphemy to say otherwise. Surely God can observe something that is Holy. The writer further submits that God was the one making the offering Himself! Soltau says, “as bearing sin, and dying under the wrath and fearful judgment of God, inflicted upon Him in order that those on whose behalf He suffered might escape”.[32] (C.F.) (Isaiah 53:10; II Corinthians 5:21; Romans 8:3; I Peter 2:24; Hebrews 9:28)[32] The eternal punishment for man and his own sin is eternal separation from God. So if Jesus had to deal with sin in the spiritual realm by dying spiritually, then in order to be the true substitute He would,

of necessity, have to be eternally separated from God (which makes two Gods) But how differently reads the holy scriptures. Jesus had to have a body (Hebrews 10:5) to deal with sin (10:8-10) Jesus dealt with sin in the flesh. If He had to deal with sin in the spiritual realm, He would not have needed “to be made like unto His brethren…” (Hebrews 2:17). He would not have needed to be a partaker of “flesh and blood” (2:14). He could have done it all in the spiritual realm ” for God is a Spirit” (John4:24). But no, He had to have a body; and almost the whole book of Hebrews deals with the types Jesus fulfilled and goes in to great detail to show that the body of Jesus was “the lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.” (John 1:29).

Hebrews chapters 9 and 10 give the greatest detail in the book concerning this issue.

The writer’s intentions for dealing with this is to show that when the body of Jesus was offered on the cross and He dismissed His spirit and cried, “It is finished” that the atonement was completed at that moment and nothing more was required. Hewitt, in his commentary on the book of Hebrews, says, “The offering of Himself took place on the cross once and for all and can never be repeated (9:25-28; 10:10,12,14). [33]

The veil in the temple was a type of Jesus’ body.

(Hebrews 10:19-20), and Hewitt says again,

The veil typified and represented the barrier between the holy God and sinful man and revealed that the ritualism of the old covenant could not provide for the people a permanent way into God’s presence. Matthew 27:51 tells us that at Christ’s death the veil of the temple was rent from the top to the bottom. [34]

This left the way clear for all to see directly into the Holy of Holies by Jesus. What does that signify? “The Holy Ghost thus signifying that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest while as the first tabernacle was yet standing” (Hebrews 9:9) but when the veil was rent, “that is to say His flesh” (10:20) (or when He died) (Matthew 27:50-51), the Holy Ghost was thus signifying that the way into the Father’s presence was now made manifest. When? At the moment of the death of Jesus! Man was totally redeemed. Hewitt seems to agree with this because he says “…the old covenant was finished, the veil had been rent, the way was open to the holiest of all and men could now draw near to God.”[35]

How? By the blood of Jesus that was shed on the cross, we are cleansed from sin, and His death ended the atoning work. So to say that He had to go to hell to suffer torments at the hands of the devil for our sins is to “add to” His work, and that is a very dangerous thing to say. These two chapters (Hebrews 9 and 10) make it very clear nothing more is needed to redeem man, but isn’t that enough?

 

VII. What really happened when Jesus went to Hades?

Paul Billheimer says, “The Father turned Him over, not only to the agony and death of Calvary, but to the Satanic tortures of His pure spirit as part of the just desert of the sin of all the race.”[36]

But, how reads the scripture, “…the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me” (John 14:30) Jesus cried, “Father into thy hands I commend My spirit”(Luke 23:46); and Hebrews 9:14 says, “How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit OFFERED HIMSElF without spot TO GOD…” Jesus offered Himself to God, not the devil.

One more scripture before we go on. “And by that will, we HAVE BEEN MADE HOLY THROUGH THE SACRIFICE OF THE BODY OF JESUS CHRIST once for all.” (Hebrews 10:10.NIV). That was to God “through the eternal Spirit” (9:14). Then what really happened to Jesus when He died? Where did He go when He went into hell? (Acts 2;27)

Jesus told the thief on the cross, “today you’ll be in paradise with me” (Luke 23:43); and this, as we have seen, is the place in the realm of Hades that was known as Abraham’s bosom (Luke 16:19-31). Why did He go there?

These people in Abraham’s bosom were being held captive

there by the law, unable to go into the presence of God, the Father, because the ” blood of bulls and goats” could never take away sins; and they had to wait for the “fulness of times” when God sent Jesus,”the Lamb which taketh away the sins of the world,” that the “way into the holiest was made manifest.” “For there is no other name given among men whereby we must be saved” (Acts 4:12).

Jesus went there to tell them they were now redeemed by Him, and “when He ascended on high, he led captive a host of captives”. (Ephesians 4:8) So when He returned to heaven, those in Abraham’s bosom went to heaven with Him. Now Hades is just a place where the wicked dead await the second resurrection to be judged and placed in the eternal lake of fire (Revelation 20:13,15). The righteous at death go to be with Jesus (II Corinthians 5:8). The devil is still the “accuser of the brethren;” but there is a difference, he has had every thing he trusted in (the law) to oppose men taken away! Praise God!

E.W. Kenyon [37] is the main propagator of this theory which

the writer has tried to show as being erroneous. It has crept into every facet of the church but mainly the charismatic portion of it. It is dangerous because it says it took “the blood of Jesus, plus going into hell to suffer torments” to redeem man, but Jesus meant what He said on the cross, “It is finished.”

 

 

FOOTNOTES

1) McInclintock, Cyclopedia of Biblical, Theological and Ecelesiastical Literature Vol. A-B (New York: Harper and Brothers Publishers, 1883, p. 518

2) E.W. Kenyon, What Happened from the Cross to the Throne

(Seattle, Washington: Publisher, E.W. Kenyon), pp. 48, 50

3) Paul E . Billheimer, Destined for the Throne (Fort

Washington, Pennsylvania: Christian Literature Crusade, 1975),

p. 94

4) Kenyon, What Happened from the Cross to the Throne, p. 60.

5) Billheimer, Destined for the Throne, p. 84

6) Kenneth Copeland, Believer’s Voice of Victory (Fort Worth,

Texas: International Church of the Word of Faith, Inc., Vo l . 10,

No. 4, April 1982), p. 3 

7) Henry Soltau, The Tabernacle (Grand Rapids, Michigan:

Kregel Publishing, 1976), p. 112

8) All quotes KJV.

9) Billheimer, Destined for the Throne, p.84.

10) Meyer Howard Abrams, 4th ed., The Norton Anthology of English Literature (New York-London: W.W. Norton and Co., Inc., 1979), pp. 1409-1540.

11) Gerard Kittle, Theological Dictionary of New Testament

Theology (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co., 1968), p. 149.

12) Colin Brown, The Now International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Grand Rapids, Michigan; Zondervan Publishing House, 1976), р . 205.

13) Ibid., p . 206.

14) James Strong, Strongs Exhaustive Concordance (Nashville,Tennessee: Crusade Bible Pub. Inc.) p. 111

15) Brown, The New International Dictionary of New Testament

Theology p. 206

16) Ibid., p. 207.

17) Kittle, Theological Dictionary of New Testament Theology,

p. 147.

18) Ibid.

19) Ibid, p. 149 and Brown, The New International Dictionary

of New Testament Theology. p. 702.

20) Brown, The New International Dictionary of New Testament

Theology, p. 209.

21) Kenyon, What Happened from the Cross to the Throne, pp. 46-47.

22) Henry Thiessen, Lectures in Systematic Theology (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co., 1979), p. 240.

23) William F. Arndt and F . Wilbur Gingrich, A Greek-English

Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Christian Literature (Chicago: The University of Chicago Press, 1957), p. 271

24) Copeland, Believer’s Voice of Victory, p. 3.

25) Charles Hodge, Commentary on the Second Epistle to the

Corinthians (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co.,

1950), P. I51.

26) Kenyon, What Happened from the Cross to the Throne, p. 60.

27) H.E. Dana and Julius R. Mantey, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament (Toronto, Ontario; The MacMillan Co., 1927), p. 177

28) Ibid., p. 156.

29) Leon Morris, The Gospel According to St. Luke (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans’s Publishing Co., 1980), p. 329

30) Billlheimer, Destined for the Throne, p. 78.

31) Copeland, Believer’s Voice of Victory, pp. 3,4.

32) Henry Soltau, The Holy Vessels and Furniture of the Tabernacle (Grand, Rapids, Michigan: Kregel Publishing Co., 1975), p. 129

33) Thomas Hewitt, The Epistle to the Hebrews (Grand Rapids,

Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing  Co.,1981), p. 125.

34) Ibid., p. 140.

35) Ibid., p. 144.

36) Billheimer, Destined for the Throne, p. 84.

37) E.W. Kenyon, The Father and His Family: The Plan of Redemption (Seattle, Washington: ,Publisher, W.E.Kenyon)

 

 

BIBLIOGRAPHY

Abrams, Meyer Howard. 4th ed. The Norton Anthology of English Literature. New York-London: W.W. Norton and Company, Inc., 1979.

Arndt, William, F., and Gingrich, F. Wilbur. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Christian Literature. Chicago: The University of Chicago Press, 1957.

Billheimer, Paul E. Destined for the Throne. Fort Washington, Penn: Christian Literature Crusade, 1975.

Brown, Colin. The New International Dictionary of New Testament

Theology. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zonderven Publishing

House, 1976.

Copeland, Kenneth. Believer’s Voice of Victory. Fort Worth, Texas: International Church of the Word of Faith, Inc., Vol.10,

No.4, April 1982.

Dana H.E., and, Mantey, Julius R.  A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament. Toronto, Ontario: The MacMillan Co., 1927.

Hewitt, Thomas. The Epistle to the Hebrews. (Tyndale New Testament Commentary). Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Со., 1981.

Hodge, Charles. Commentary on the Second Epistle to the Corinthians. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co., 1950.

Kenyon, E.W. What Happened from the Cross to the Throne. Seattle, Washington: Publisher, E.W. Kenyon.

Kittle, Gerhard. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co., 1968.

McLintock. Cyclopedia of Biblical, Theological and Ecclesiastical

Literature. New York : Harper and Brothers Publishing, 1883.

Morris, Leon. The Gospel According to St. Luke. (Tyndale New Testament commentary). Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co., 1980.

Soltau, Henry. The Holy Vessels and Furniture of the Tabernacle Grand Rapids, Michigan: Kregel Publishing, 1975.

Soltau, Henry. The Tabernacle. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Kregel Publishing, 1976.

Strong, James. Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance. Nashville, Tennessee: Crusade Bible Publishing, Inc.

Thiessen, Henry C. Lectures in Systematic Theology.

Michigan: Eerdman’s Publishing Co., 1979.

 

 

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